Indian Polity –Test

 Indian Polity –Test 2- Answers

1. The jurisdiction covering the Andaman and Nicobar islands falls under the supervision of :

[A] A circuit bench of the Bombay High Court at Port Blair
[B] A circuit bench of the Madras High Court at Port Blair
[C] A circuit bench of the Calcutta High Court at Port Blair
[D] A circuit bench of Supreme Court of India at Port Blair

Correct Answer: C [A circuit bench of the Calcutta High Court at Port Blair]

2. How long a person should have practiced in a High Court to be eligible to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court of India?

[A] 10 Years
[B] 12 Years
[C] 15 Years
[D] 20 Years

Correct Answer: A [10 Years]

3.Via which among the following amendments of the Constitution of India, Delhi was designated as National Capital Territory (NCT)?

[A] 63rd Amendment Act
[B] 69th Amendment Act
[C] 74th Amendment Act
[D] 76th Amendment Act

 

Correct Answer: B [69th Amendment Act]

4.Which of the following Statements is correct regarding the Election Commission of India?

[A] It is an independent and statutory body.
[B] It consists of members having a tenure of six years.
[C] It acts as a court for arbitration of disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties.
[D] Being an all-India body, it is also concerned with the elections with the elections to Gram Panchayats and State Muncipalities.

Correct Answer: B [It consists of members having a tenure of six years.]

5.Which of the following is not one of the grounds for disqualification for being elected as a Member of Parliament?

1.   If the person holds an office of profit under the State Government.

2.   If the person has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign State.

3.   If a person is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.

4.   If the person has/had been detained under the Preventive Detention Law.

Choose the correct option:

[A] Only 2
[B] Only 4
[C] 1 and 4
[D] 1,2 and 4

 

Correct Answer: B [Only 4]

Notes:

Article 102: Disqualifications for being elected as an MP:
(1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament-
(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;
(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;
(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;
(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;
(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament, explanation For the purposes of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State.
(2) A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.

6.The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in the four states of :

[A] Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
[B] Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
[C] Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
[D] Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland

 

Correct Answer: B [Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram]

Notes: The 5th Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state, except in the 4 states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram which has been dealt separately in 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

7.Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has to be amended to provide for the formation of a new State ?

[A] First Schedule
[B] Second Schedule
[C] Third Schedule
[D] Ninth Schedule

 

Correct Answer: A [First Schedule]

8.The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court of India to adjudicate disputes between the Centre and the States through:

[A] Appellate Jurisdiction
[B] Original Jurisdiction
[C] Advisory Jurisdiction
[D] Writ Jurisdiction

 

Correct Answer: B [Original Jurisdiction]

9.Which of the following is a part of the electoral college for the Election of the President but does not participate in the proceedings for his/her impeachment?

[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] State Legislative Assemblies
[D] State Legislative Councils

 

Correct Answer: C [State Legislative Assemblies]

10.The Swaran Singh Committee recommended :

[A] The Constitution of State-Level Election Commissions.
[B] Panchayati-Raj reforms.
[C] Inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
[D] Interlinking of himalayan and peninsular rivers.

 

Correct Answer: C [Inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.]

Notes:

In 1976, the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about fundamental duties, the need and necessity of which was felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975-1977). The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution. It stressed that the citizens should become conscious that in addition to the enjoyment of rights, they also have certain duties to perform as well. The Congress Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976. This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution.

11. Which Indian State has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?

[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Rajasthan
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Gujarat

 

Correct Answer: A [Madhya Pradesh]

12.Arrange the following functionaries/officials in their respective order of precedence-
1.Governors of states (within their respective states)
2.Former Presidents, Deputy Prime Minister
3.Cabinet Ministers of the Union, Leaders of Chief Opposition in the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

[A] 1-2-3
[B] 2-1-3
[C] 3-2-1
[D] 2-3-1

 

Correct Answer: A [1-2-3]

13.Which one of the following items/Subjects belongs to the Concurrent list of the VIIth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

[A] Public Health and Sanitation
[B] Forests
[C] Stock Exchanges
[D] Agriculture

 

Correct Answer: B [Forests]

14.The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in :

[A] Lok Sabha only
[B] Rajya Sabha only
[C] Either of the two houses of the Parliament
[D] Joint Sitting of the two houses of the Parliament

 

Correct Answer: B [Rajya Sabha only]

15.The Department of Border Management is a department under which of the following Union Ministries?

[A] Ministry of Defence
[B] Ministry of Home Affairs
[C] Ministry of External Affairs
[D] Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

 

Correct Answer: B [Ministry of Home Affairs]

16.Which of the following is the largest Lok Sabha constituency (Areawise)?

[A] Arunachal West
[B] Ladakh
[C] Barmer
[D] Kutch

 

Correct Answer: B [Ladakh]

Notes:

The top five area-wise constituencies are- Ladakh (173,266 sq km), Barmer (71,601 sq km), Kutch (41,644 sq km), Arunachal West (40,572 sq km) and Arunachal East (39,749 sq km

17.Which of the following Indian States have a Bicameral Legislature?
1.Uttar Pradesh
2.Bihar
3.Chattisgarh
4.Jammu and Kashmir

[A] 1 and 2
[B] 2 and 4
[C] 1, 2 and 3
[D] 1, 2 and 4

 

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 4]

18.Andaman and Nicobar( Protection of Aboriginal tribes )Amendment Regulation 2012 has been promulgated under Article 240 of the Constitution, which empowers the President to take such measures for the protection of Aboriginal tribes in case of Union Territories. This regulation will protect which of the following tribes?

[A] Onges
[B] Shompens
[C] Sentilese
[D] Jarawas

 

Correct Answer: D [Jarawas]

19.Who among the following operates the National Disaster Response Fund which was constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] Union Minister for Home Affairs
[C] Union Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
[D] Union Minister for Environment and Forests

 

Correct Answer: B [Union Minister for Home Affairs]

20.Which of the following are among the taxes levied exclusively by the Central Government and are mentioned in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
1.Corporation Tax
2.Taxes on advertisement in the newspapers
3.Taxes on Agricultural income
4.Taxes on consumption/sale of electricity

[A] Only 2
[B] Only 4
[C] 1 and 2
[D] 3 and 4

 

Correct Answer: C [1 and 2]

Notes:

Taxes on Agricultural income and Taxes on consumption/sale of electricity are levied by the State Governments.

21. Many key features of the constitution such as the federal structure of government, provincial autonomy, a bicameral central legislature and the principle of separation of powers, are directly taken from:

[A] Nehru Report of 1928
[B] Government of India Act, 1919
[C] Government of India Act, 1935
[D] Indian Independence Act, 1947

 

Correct Answer: C [Government of India Act, 1935]

32.Which of the following is not one of the official languages mentioned in the VIIIth Schedule?

[A] Persian
[B] Sanskrit
[C] Kashmiri
[D] Nepali

 

Correct Answer: A [Persian]

33.Which of the following parts/ provisions of the Indian Constitution cannot be amended :

[A] Preamble to the Constitution
[B] Directive Principles of State Policy
[C] Fundamental Rights
[D] Judicial Review

 

Correct Answer: D [Judicial Review]

Notes:

Judicial Review forms the part of the basic structure of the Constitution which cannot be altered by the amendment procedure.

34.There is a prescribed procedure for the amendment of the provisions of the Indian Constitution. This feature has been borrowed from the Constitution of :

[A] Weimer Republic of Germany
[B] South Africa
[C] Ireland 
[D] Canada

 

Correct Answer: B [South Africa]

35.Which of the following is incorrect about the Rajya Sabha ?

[A] The Rajya Sabha consists of 12 members nominated by the Prime Minister.
[B] One-third of its members retire every second year.
[C] The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution.
[D] The Vice President is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

 

Correct Answer: A [The Rajya Sabha consists of 12 members nominated by the Prime Minister.]

36.Legislature of the Union which is called ‘Parliament’ consists of :

[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha 
[C] Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
[D] President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

 

Correct Answer: D [President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha]

37. Right to Education Act, 2009 mandates 25 pc free seats to the poor in which among the following schools of India?

[A] Government Schools only
[B] Government Schools and Government Aided Private Schools only
[C] Government Schools, Government aided Private Schools and Private unaided schools
[D] Private Schools only

 

Correct Answer: C [Government Schools, Government aided Private Schools and Private unaided schools]

38.The Constitution of India provides that Trade, Commerce and Intercourse throughout the territory of Union of India is free. However, despite this provision, a state in India can make law for imposing taxes on imports of goods from other states in India, provided the goods produced in other states are also taxes in that state in the same manner. Who decides whether the states can make such law or not?

[A] The State which is imposing law itself
[B] The States which have interests in the taxes to be imposed
[C] Parliament of India
[D] President of India

 

Correct Answer: D [President of India]

Notes:

Constitution of India says that Trade, Commerce and Intercourse throughout the territory of Union of India is free, but this is subject to some other provisions of the same part. Article 301 says that parliament may impose restriction in some parts of the territory in the interest of general public. For example a famine struck state may lead the parliament to enact some discriminatory law also, if that discrimination is in favor of the public interests. The states, as per article 303 of the constitution are allowed to impose taxes on goods imported from the other states provided they goods produced in other states are also taxes in that state in the same manner. But who will decide, whether the states can enact such law or not? This is to be decided by the President. Thus, if we consider that Rajasthan wants to impose a tax on a good that is imported from Gujarat, the bill of such kind has necessarily get a sanction from President. President may hold his/ her sanction after looking in details that the said bill is in the public interest.

39.The Directive Principles of State policy, though attractive, are not enforceable by law. But there is one among the given options, which has been so far made enforceable by a Supreme Court fiat. Identify that DPSP from the given options:

[A] Uniform Civil Code
[B] Free Education till the children complete age of 6 years (provision after 86th amendment act)
[C] Equal pay for equal work
[D] Prohibition of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health

 

Correct Answer: C [Equal pay for equal work]

Notes:

It is true that the DPSP are not enforceable by law, yet the Supreme Court has constantly endeavored to make the executive at least make some laws in that regard. The first option is incorrect, most of us can figure it out. The second stands provisional as the original constitution had 14 years of age, out of which 6-14 years has now become and RTE and 0-6 years is the DPSP. There is no law in India which follows option D. The only DPSP which has been enforced by a law is “Equal pay for equal work”. The principle of equal pay for equal work for men and women embodied in Article 39(d) of the Constitution was first considered in Kishori Mohanlal Bakshi vs Union of India in 1962. The Supreme Court then said that it was not capable of being enforced in a court of law. However, the situation changed in 1982, when in Randhir Singh vs Union of India it was unequivocally ruled that the principle was not an abstract doctrine and could be enforced by reading into it the equality precepts enshrined in Articles 14 and 16. The court went so far as to say that even a daily wage employee who is performing duties similar to regular employees is entitled to the same pay. However, the Supreme Court took another turn by 1988 and veered round to the view that the principle cannot be enforced and it should remain only as a guiding star for the law makers and judiciary. For the same purpose there is an act “Equal Remuneration Act of 1976”, but the act has been proved toothless so far.

40.The various Amendments of Citizenship Act in 1986 have resulted in the following:

1.       Dual Citizenship

2.       Voting right at the age of 18 yrs

3.       Difficulty in acquiring citizenship by refugees of Sri Lanka, Bangladesh etc.

Which among the above is / are correct?”

[A] 1 & 3
[B] 2 & 3
[C] Only 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3

 

Correct Answer: C [Only 3]

Notes:

The first thing we have to note that constitution of India has provided for a single citizenship for the whole country. Despite of having concepts such as OCI and PIO , which have been merged now, there is NO Dual Citizenship in India. The persons who are in these categories cannot exercise voting rights. This means that we can eliminate option 1. The voting rights option can be eliminated because voting is our constitutional right and the age 18 years replaced the 21 years in article 326 by Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988. The 3rd option is correct and shows the purpose of the act.

41.Who among the following will head the National Council for Senior Citizens?

[A] Prime Minister of India
[B] Chairman of National Development Council
[C] Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog
[D] Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment

 

Correct Answer: D [Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment]

42.Poll Monitoring System was implemented in which among the following states of India for the first time?

[A] Goa
[B] Manipur
[C] Assam
[D] Tripura

 

Correct Answer: A [Goa]

Notes:

Under the system, fingerprints of the voters would be recorded by finger print reading machines along with their photographs by the web cameras fitted to computers.

43.The ultras under the Karbi Peoples’ Liberation Tiger, KPLT are predominantly active in which among the following states?

[A] Assam
[B] Manipur
[C] Nagaland
[D] Mizoram

 

Correct Answer: A [Assam]

44.The National Land Acquisition, Resettlement and Rehabilitation Bill aims to substitute which among the following acts?

[A] The Land Acquisition Act, 1896
[B] The Land Acquisition Act, 1884
[C] The Land Acquisition Act, 1894
[D] None Of These

 

Correct Answer: C [The Land Acquisition Act, 1894]

45.During Elections what will happen, if the number of contesting candidates in a constituency goes beyond 64?

[A] Candidates beyond 64 are Not allowed in a constituency.
[B] Separate EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) will be used.
[C] EVMs cannot be used in such a constituency. Voting by means of ballot box will be used.
[D] None of these

 

Correct Answer: C [EVMs cannot be used in such a constituency. Voting by means of ballot box will be used.]

Notes:

n case the number of contesting candidates goes beyond 64 in any constituency, EVMs cannot be used in such a constituency. The conventional method of voting by means of ballot box and ballot paper will have to be adopted in such a constituency. EVMs can cater to a maximum of 64 candidates. There is provision for 16 candidates in a Balloting Unit. If the total number of candidates exceeds 16, a second Balloting Unit can be linked parallel to the first Balloting Unit. Similarly, if the total number of candidates exceeds 32, a third Balloting Unit can be attached and if the total number of candidates exceeds 48, a fourth Balloting Unit can be attached to cater to a maximum of 64 candidates.

46.What is the maximum number of candidates which EVMs (Electronic Voting Machine) can cater to?

[A] 32
[B] 64
[C] 78
[D] 100

 

Correct Answer: B [64]

Notes:

EVMs can cater to a maximum of 64 candidates. There is provision for 16 candidates in a Balloting Unit. If the total number of candidates exceeds 16, a second Balloting Unit can be linked parallel to the first Balloting Unit. Similarly, if the total number of candidates exceeds 32, a third Balloting Unit can be attached and if the total number of candidates exceeds 48, a fourth Balloting Unit can be attached to cater to a maximum of 64 candidates.

47.Normally, under the Election Commission’s norms, how far can a polling station be from your house?

[A] 1 km
[B] 2 km
[C] 3 km
[D] 4 km

 

Correct Answer: B [2 km]

Notes:

According to Para 3 of Chapter II of Handbook for Returning Officers, polling stations should be set up in such a manner that ordinarily no voter is required to travel more than two kms to reach his polling station.

48.What is the maximum number of votes which can be cast in Electronic Voting Machine?

[A] 2840
[B] 3840
[C] 5000
[D] 6500

 

Correct Answer: B [3840]

Notes:

EVMs can record a maximum of 3840 votes. As normally the total number of electors in a polling station will not exceed 1500, the capacity of EVMs is more than sufficient

49.In India, the EVMs ( Electronic Voting Machines) have been devised and designed by Election Commission in collaboration with which among the following?

[A] Bharat Electronics Ltd and Electronic Corporation of India
[B] DRDO and Central Electronics Limited
[C] DRDO and Rajasthan Electronics and Instruments Ltd.
[D] Central Electronics Limited and Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.

 

Correct Answer: A [Bharat Electronics Ltd and Electronic Corporation of India]

50.When was the EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) first introduced in elections (on experimental basis) ?

[A] 1989-90
[B] 1992-93
[C] 1998-99
[D] 2002-03

 

Correct Answer: A [1989-90]

51.What has been the maximum number of candidates in any constituency in India at any election so far?

[A] 133
[B] 333
[C] 533
[D] 1033

 

Correct Answer: D [1033]

Notes:

In Modakurichi Assembly Constituency of Tamil Nadu there were 1033 contesting candidates during the general election to Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly in 1996. The ballot papers were in the form of a booklet.

52.As per the Code of Conduct by Election Commission of India for Party in Power, Ministers and other authorities shall not sanction grants/payments out of discretionary funds from what time ?

[A] 24 hours before the commencement of the election
[B] The time elections are announced by the Commission
[C] 36 hours before the commencement of the election
[D] 48 hours before the commencement of the election

 

Correct Answer: B [The time elections are announced by the Commission]

Notes:

Ministers and other authorities shall not sanction grants/payments out of discretionary funds from the time elections are announced by the Commission

53.As per the Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of Political Parties and Candidates by Election Commission of India they can’t hold public meetings during the period of _____ hours ending with the hour fixed for the close of the poll.

[A] 12
[B] 24
[C] 36
[D] 48

 

Correct Answer: D [48]

54.TRAI (Telecom and Regulatory Authority of India) was established in year ________ by ________

[A] 1997; an Executive Order of Government of India
[B] 2001; an Executive Order of Government of India
[C] 1997; an Act of Parliament
[D] 2001; an Act of Parliament

 

Correct Answer: C [1997; an Act of Parliament]

55.The premises of India’s Finance Ministry are also known as ___?

[A] East Block
[B] West Block
[C] North Block
[D] South Block

 

Correct Answer: C [North Block]

56.Which of the following Constitution Amendment Bill grant citizens a fundamental right to form cooperative societies?

[A] 110th
[B] 111th
[C] 112th
[D] 113th

 

Correct Answer: B [111th]

57.A system known as “Dyarchy” was introduced in India for the first time by the Government of India Act 1919, which implied that the spheres of the various subjects were divided into___?

[A] Central Subjects and Provincial Subjects
[B] Reserved Subjects and Transferred Subjects
[C] Vested Subjects and Residual Subjects
[D] General Subjects and Concurrent Subjects

 

Correct Answer: B [Reserved Subjects and Transferred Subjects]

58.“Right to service” is an important part of which among the following bills / act?

[A] Lokpal & Lokayukta Bill
[B] Citizen’s Charter and Grievance Redressal Bill
[C] Right to Information Act
[D] None of them

 

Correct Answer: C [Right to Information Act]

59.The provision for having a Finance Commission to sort out the revenue-sharing arrangement between states and the Centre is part of the Constitution under which among the following articles?

[A] Article 275
[B] Article 280
[C] Article 282
[D] Article 285

 

Correct Answer: B [Article 280]

60.In which among the following states, Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) was imposed for the first time?

[A] Manipur
[B] Punjab
[C] Jammu & Kashmir
[D] 7 North East States

 

Correct Answer: D [7 North East States]

Notes:

AFSPA became a law on September 11, 1958. Initially, it was applicable to the seven Northeastern states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura. This was so because in all these states there were movements of ethnic groups demanding separation from India. The government felt that such insurgencies could be checked through deployment of the armed forces, and they would need special powers to carry out their responsibilities. AFSPA was extended to J&K in 1990, on similar considerations.

61.The 8th schedule of Constitution of India , originally had how many languages?

[A] 12
[B] 14
[C] 16
[D] 22

 

Correct Answer: B [14]

Notes:

The Constitution listed fourteen languages — Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu — in Eighth Schedule, in 1950.

Since then, the list has been expanded thrice, once to include Sindhi, second time to include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali and yet again to add four more languages — Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri — bringing total to 22 scheduled languages. The claims of many more languages for inclusion is under consideration.

62.What is the difference between Union Legislature and Parliament of India ?

[A] Union Legislature consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, Parliament consists of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President
[B] Union Legislature consists of Lok Sabha only, Parliament Consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
[C] Union Legislature consists of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President, Parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
[D] There is no difference between the two

 

Correct Answer: D [There is no difference between the two]

63.The implied right to privacy is a part of the right to “life” and “personal liberty” enshrined under which among the following articles of Constitution of India?

[A] Article 18
[B] Article 19
[C] Article 20
[D] Article 21

 

Correct Answer: D [Article 21]

64.Circuit bench of the Supreme Court of India is located at?

[A] Mumbai
[B] Calcutta
[C] Chennai
[D] None of them

 

Correct Answer: D [None of them]

65.As per which among the following articles, President of India has power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence?

[A] Article 70
[B] Article 72
[C] Article 74
[D] Article 76

 

Correct Answer: B [Article 72]

66.” Maulana Azad National Fellowship scheme” is available in India for the students of which among the following?

[A] Muslims
[B] BPL Families of Muslims
[C] BPL Families of 5 Notified Minorities
[D] 5 Notified Minorities

 

Correct Answer: D [5 Notified Minorities]

67.The Integrated Action Plan (IAP) is aimed at bridging the development deficit in the extremely backward areas that are affected by ______.
Choose the most correct option:

[A] Drought
[B] Terrorism
[C] Left Wing Extremism
[D] Widespread Poverty

 

Correct Answer: C [Left Wing Extremism]

68.“Prime Minister’s 15 Point Programme” in India is related to which among the following segments of society?

[A] BPL families
[B] Minorities
[C] Unemployed Poors
[D] Rural Old Age people

 

Correct Answer: B [Minorities]

69.14th September, 1949 Constitution-makers of the country decided to accord the status of _________ to Hindi.
Choose the most correct option:

[A] National Language of India
[B] Official Language of India
[C] Official Language of Union
[D] National Language of Union

 

Correct Answer: C [Official Language of Union]

70.Who among the following heads the National Integration Council in India?

[A] President
[B] Vice president
[C] Prime Minister
[D] A retired Chief Justice of Supreme Court

 

Correct Answer: C [Prime Minister]

71.Which among the following acts has not been enacted by parliament of India?

[A] AFSPA
[B] POTA
[C] MCOCA
[D] FEMA

 

Correct Answer: C [MCOCA]

72.7, Race Course Road, the official residence of Indian Prime Minister is commonly known as ___?

[A] Anugraha
[B] Chitrakoot
[C] Panchavati
[D] PM Niwas

 

Correct Answer: C [Panchavati]

73.Which among the following terms does not get a place in Constitution of India?

[A] Attorney General
[B] Comptroller and Auditor General
[C] Budget
[D] Cabinet

 

Correct Answer: C [Budget]

74.Which among the following is the basic territorial unit of Administration in India?

[A] Revenue Division
[B] Tehsil
[C] District
[D] Village

 

Correct Answer: C [District]

75.Who among the following has written the book titled ‘The Perils of Democracy’?

[A] P. S. Ramamohan Rao
[B] P. C. Alexander
[C] Gurudas Kamat
[D] Shankar Dayal Sharma

 

Correct Answer: B [P. C. Alexander]

76.Which among the following committee is known for recommending a 3-tier Panchayati Raj System which includes Zila Parishad at the District Level, Panchayat Samiti at the Block/ Tehsil/ Taluka Level and Gram Panchayat at the Village Level?

[A] Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
[B] Ashok Mehta Committee
[C] GVK Rao Committee
[D] Sarkaria Commission

 

Correct Answer: A [Balwant Rai Mehta Committee]

77.Which among the following was the smallest state among the Part A, B, C & D states after India’s independence?

[A] Travancore Cochin
[B] Delhi
[C] Bilaspur
[D] Coorg

 

Correct Answer: C [Bilaspur]

78.Legislative Powers of the State of Jammu & Kashmir don’t extend to the matters with respect to which the Parliament has power to make laws for the states under Constitution of India. The above provision finds its place in which among the following?

[A] Constitution of India part VI
[B] Constitution of India, article 370
[C] Constitution of India, article 238
[D] Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir

 

Correct Answer: D [Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir]

79.The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the Legislatures of various provinces and nominated by the rulers of the princely states. Why the members of the Constituent Assembly were NOT directly elected?

[A] Congress as well as Muslim League had demanded the election of the members of Constituent assembly members via this method only
[B] There was an array of disagreements with the Cabinet Mission amongst the different sections in India and formation was Constituent Assembly by directly elected members was not possible.
[C] The People of India had already given a mandate to create a Constituent Assembly from the elected members of Legislatures of various provinces
[D] The Princely states had objected for direct elections for the members of the Constituent assembly

 

Correct Answer: B [There was an array of disagreements with the Cabinet Mission amongst the different sections in India and formation was Constituent Assembly by directly elected members was not possible.]

Notes:

When the Labor Government under Clement Atlee came under power in 1940s, there was a change in the Indian policy of Britain. The government of Clement Atlee had appointed the Cabinet Mission to look into the matter of Constituent assembly for India. There was an array of disagreements with the Cabinet Mission amongst different sections of India and this was the primary reason that the formation of Constituent assembly by directly elected members was not possible. Since, Jinnah and the Muslim league wanted two Constituent assemblies one for India and one for Future Pakistan, it was decided that the a Constituent assembly is to be formed by the newly elected legislators of the Provincial assemblies. Thus, based upon this premise, the provinces were grouped into three regions viz. Predominantly Hindu, Predominantly Muslim and those where both were almost equal in number. The members of Constituent assembly were elected accordingly and it was boycotted by Jinnah et al.

80.Who among the following determines the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Finance Commission in India?

[A] President of India
[B] Council of Ministers
[C] Parliament by an act
[D] Union Cabinet

 

Correct Answer: C [Parliament by an act]

Notes:

Article 280 (2) (2) Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. In context with the above article, the parliament enacted the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1951

81.Which among the following is a correct definition of the Political Party in India?

[A] Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India registered with the Election Commission as a political party under provisions of Article 324 of Constitution of India
[B] Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India notified as a Political party by the Election Commission of India
[C] Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India which has been able to secure certain number of votes as prescribed by the Election Commission
[D] Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India registered with the Election Commission as a political party under provisions of Section 29A of Representation of People Act, 1951

 

Correct Answer: D [Political party means an association or a body of individual citizens of India registered with the Election Commission as a political party under provisions of Section 29A of Representation of People Act, 1951]

Notes:

Section 29A of Representation of People Act, 1951 says- Registration with the Election Commission of associations and bodies as political parties. — 1. Any association or body of individual citizens of India calling itself a political party and intending to avail itself of the provisions of this Part shall make an application to the Election Commission for its registration as a political party for the purposes of this Act.

82.Who among the following is called the “guardian of the public purse” of India?

[A] Comptroller & Auditor General
[B] Finance Minister
[C] Chairman of Public Accounts Committee
[D] Prime Minister

 

Correct Answer: A [Comptroller & Auditor General]

83.Who among the following is considered to be the custodian of the nation’s Finances?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] Finance Minister
[C] Comptroller & Governor General of India
[D] Reserve Bank of India

 

Correct Answer: B [Finance Minister]

84.Who among the following is the first citizen of a city in India?

[A] Mayor
[B] Chairman
[C] Sheriff
[D] Member of Legislative Assembly

 

Correct Answer: A [Mayor]

85.“India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management” is located at:

[A] New Delhi
[B] Mumbai
[C] Chennai
[D] Chanigarh

 

Correct Answer: A [New Delhi]

86.As per the provisions of the Article 94 of the Constitution of India, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the office of the Speaker becomes vacant at which among the following time?

[A] Immediately after Lok Sabha is dissolved
[B] Immediately after the New Government is elected
[C] Immediately after election for new Lok Sabha is completed
[D] Immediately before the first session of the next Lok Sabha

 

Correct Answer: D [Immediately before the first session of the next Lok Sabha]

87.As per the Nehru Report, the composition of India’s parliament was as follows:

[A] President, Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha
[B] Crown, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
[C] Crown, House of People, House of States
[D] Crown, Senate, House of Representatives

 

Correct Answer: D [Crown, Senate, House of Representatives]

88.As per the Government of India act 1919, the life of the Council of State and Legislative Assembly were as follows

[A] 5 Years , 3 years
[B] 3 Years , 5 years
[C] 5 Years , 5 years
[D] 3 Years , 3 years

 

Correct Answer: A [5 Years , 3 years]

89.As per the Constitution of India, a new All India service can be instituted with only on the initiative of which among the following?

[A] Lok Sabha
[B] Rajya Sabha
[C] 2/3rd of the States of India
[D] Interstate Council

 

Correct Answer: B [Rajya Sabha]

Notes:

his question is based upon article 312 of the constitution which says Notwithstanding anything in “Chapter VI of Part VI or Part XI“, if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest so to do, Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or more all India services “including an all-India judicial service“common to the Union and the States, and, subject to the other provisions of this Chapter, regulate the recruitment, and the conditions of service of persons appointed, to any such service.

90.All Minority Educational Institutions are entitled to exercise rights enshrined in which among the following articles of Constitution of India?

[A] 27
[B] 28
[C] 29
[D] 30

 

Correct Answer: D [30]

91.“We must not for a moment forget, it is a birth right of every individual to receive at least the basic education without which he cannot fully discharge his duties as a citizen.”
Who among the following personalities of India is known to have made this famous statement regarding “Right to Education”?

[A] Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
[B] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[C] Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
[D] Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam

 

Correct Answer: C [Maulana Abul Kalam Azad]

92.“All powers of Government and all authority-legislative, executive and judicial are derived from the people and the same shall be exercised in the commonwealth of India through the organizations, established by or under and in accord with, this constitution”.
The above para has been taken from which among the following (which has been characterized by some scholars as “Constitution of Commonwealth of India”) ?

[A] Government of India Act 1935
[B] Nehru Report
[C] Objective Resolution
[D] Resolution by Swaraj Party in 1924

 

Correct Answer: B [Nehru Report]

93.Which among the following articles of Constitution of India gives the power to the Highcourts to issue writs?

[A] 222
[B] 224
[C] 226
[D] 228

 

Correct Answer: C [226]

94.Who among the following is the ex-officio chairman of Indian Council of World Affairs ?

[A] Foreign Minister
[B] President
[C] Vice President
[D] Prime Minister

Show Answer

95.During the tenure of which of the following prime ministers The Lok Sabha never meet?

[A] Morar Ji Desai
[B] Chaudhary Charan Singh
[C] Inder Kumar Gujral
[D] H. D. Deve Gowda

 

Correct Answer: B [Chaudhary Charan Singh]

96.Which among the following bodies is in charge of enforcement of the standards of the Indian Tricolor as per the provisions of the “Flag Code of India”?

[A] Ministry of Home Affairs
[B] Ministry of Culture
[C] Bureau of Indian Standards
[D] Supreme Court of India

 

Correct Answer: C [Bureau of Indian Standards]

97.Till which of the following years, the Supreme Court of India commenced its sittings from the Parliament building prior to moving to the present premises?

[A] 1950
[B] 1956
[C] 1958
[D] 1960

 

Correct Answer: C [1958]

Notes:

The Federal Court of India which came up via the Government of India act 1935 commenced its sitting in the Chamber of Princes in the parliament building from 1937 till 1950. The SC came into being on 28 January 1950 and from that time till 1958, it commenced its hearing from there only. It moved to the current premises in 1958.

98.The Dispute Resolution Panel has been established under which among the following acts in India?

[A] Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
[B] Income Tax Act, 1961
[C] The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
[D] The Trade Unions Act, 1926

 

Correct Answer: B [Income Tax Act, 1961]

99.Who among the following appoints/ nominates the chairperson of the National Commission for Women?

[A] President
[B] Central Government
[C] Vice President
[D] President on recommendation of a Parliament committee

 

Correct Answer: B [Central Government]

100.which among the following established the Planning commission in 1950 as an extra constitutional body through a resoltion?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] Parliament
[C] Lok Sabha
[D] Cabinet

 

Correct Answer: D [Cabinet]

101.Article 43 B in Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with:

[A] Rural Business Hubs
[B] Cooperative Societies
[C] Village Panchayats
[D] Forest Development

 

Correct Answer: B [Cooperative Societies]

102.A bill which affects the meaning and scope of which among the following can be introduced in the parliament only on recommendation of President of India?

[A] Foreign Loans
[B] Corporation Tax
[C] Tax on Agriculture Income
[D] Export Duties

 

Correct Answer: C [Tax on Agriculture Income]

103.“Cervus elaphus hanglu” is the state animal of which among the following states?

[A] Jammu & Kashmir
[B] Himachal Pradesh
[C] Uttarakhand
[D] Arunachal Pradesh

 

Correct Answer: A [Jammu & Kashmir]

104.A person can be appointed as Attorney General of India, provided he / she is qualified to be appointed as which among the following?

[A] Chief Justice of Supreme Court
[B] Chief Justice of High Court
[C] Judge of Supreme Court
[D] Judge of High Court

 

Correct Answer: C [Judge of Supreme Court]

105.A major failure of the judicial system in the country has been its ineffectiveness in ensuring speedy disposal of cases under trial. This is out of line of which among the following articles of Constitution of India which provides a right to speedy justice?

[A] Article 18
[B] Article 19
[C] Article 20
[D] Article 21

 

Correct Answer: D [Article 21]

106.In India, the responsibility for recognition and vesting of forest rights and distribution of land rights rests with which among the following ?

[A] Ministry of Environment & Forests
[B] Ministry of Tribal affairs
[C] State and UT Governments
[D] Local Governments

 

Correct Answer: C [State and UT Governments]

107.An ordinary bill is generally circulated / put on website for purpose of eliciting the public opinion on it during which of the following stages?

[A] Before First reading
[B] After First Reading but Before Second Reading
[C] After Second Reading but before Third reading
[D] After Third reading

 

Correct Answer: B [After First Reading but Before Second Reading]

108.The National Disaster Response Fund, which has replaced the National Calamity Contingency Fund on 28 September 2010, has been classified in which among the following?

[A] Consolidated Fund of India
[B] Contingency Fund of India
[C] Public Account of India
[D] All the above

 

Correct Answer: C [Public Account of India]

109.“Jungapithia” is the state fish of which among the following states of India?

[A] Assam
[B] Arunachal Pradesh
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] West Bengal

 

Correct Answer: B [Arunachal Pradesh]

110.The number of the Judges in the Supreme Court of India can be increased by which among the following?

[A] If there is a representation from the supreme court regarding the number of pending cases and need to increase number of judges
[B] By Amendment of Constitution of India
[C] By an act of parliament
[D] By a Presidential Notification

 

Correct Answer: C [By an act of parliament]

111.In issuing one of the writs, the Supreme Court orders: 
” the respondent was not entitled to an office he was holding or a privilege he was exercising”. 
The above declaration can be identified as which among the following writs?

[A] Prohibition
[B] Quo-warranto
[C] Certiorari
[D] Habeas Corpus

 

Correct Answer: B [Quo-warranto]

112.The Bicameralism legislature is an essential features in which among the following types of Governments?

[A] Parliamentary System
[B] Presidential system
[C] Federal System
[D] Unitary System

 

Correct Answer: C [Federal System]

113.In which of the following conditions the Government in the Centre would fall during the budget procedure?

[A] If the Finance Bill is returned by the President
[B] If the Finance Bill is rejected by Rajya Sabha
[C] If the Finance Bill is rejected by the Lok Sabha
[D] If the Cut Motion fails in the Lok Sabha

 

Correct Answer: C [If the Finance Bill is rejected by the Lok Sabha]

114.In which of the following states, Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were used for the first time in India?

[A] Karnataka
[B] Kerala
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] West Bengal

 

Correct Answer: B [Kerala]

Notes:

The Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were used for the first time in part of Parur Assembly Constituency in Kerala in 1982, on experimental basis. Later, the extensive use of EVMs started in 1998.

115.Which among the following is NOT a salient feature of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act ?

[A] Gram Sabha
[B] Three Tier System
[C] State Election Commission
[D] State Planning Commission

 

Correct Answer: D [State Planning Commission]

116.Which among the following commissions was established by an amendment of the Constitution of India?

[A] National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
[B] National Commission for Minorities
[C] National Commission for Women
[D] National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

 

Correct Answer: D [National Commission for Scheduled Tribes]

117.Which among the following articles of Constitution of India entrusts the President of India to grant pardons?

[A] Article 71
[B] Article 72
[C] Article 73
[D] Article 74

 

Correct Answer: B [Article 72]

118.In context with the Armed Forces Tribunal, Consider the following statements: 
1. Armed Forces Tribunal has been constituted via a Legislation by Parliament of India 
2. Armed Forces Tribunal has Appellate Jurisdiction in matters related to services 
3. Armed Forces Tribunal has original Jurisdiction in matters related to Court martial 
Which among the above statements is / are correct ?

[A] Only Statement 1 is correct
[B] Only Statement 1 & 2 are correct
[C] Only Statement 1 & 3 are correct
[D] All are correct statements

 

Correct Answer: A [Only Statement 1 is correct]

Notes:

The AFC has appellate jurisdiction in matters of Court martial and original jurisdiction in service matters

119.In which year the Traditional Forest Dwellers Act was enacted in India ?

[A] 2002
[B] 2005
[C] 2006
[D] 2008

 

Correct Answer: C [2006]

120.From which of the following dates, the Model Code of Conduct becomes operational in an election for a state assembly in India?

[A] 6 Months prior to the date on which election commences
[B] 3 months prior to the date on which election commences
[C] 2 months before the state assembly is due to finish its term
[D] The date on which election commission announces the election schedule

 

Correct Answer: D [The date on which election commission announces the election schedule]

121.The National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) has been constituted to give focused attention to the problems of rainfed areas of the country. The NRAA is a / an ________?

[A] Advisory Body
[B] Constitutional Body
[C] Statutory Body
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: A [Advisory Body]

122.Who among the following can pardon the Capital Punishment?

[A] President, Governor and Administrator of Union Territory
[B] President & Governor
[C] President & Administrator of Union Territory
[D] Only President

 

Correct Answer: D [Only President]

123.Who among the following decides on the matter of disqualification of a Member of Rajya Sabha?

[A] Parliament of India by resolution
[B] Election Commission of India
[C] President by advice of Parliament
[D] President by advice of Election Commission

 

Correct Answer: D [President by advice of Election Commission]

124.The salary of the Judge of High Court are charged from which among the following: 

[A] Consolidated Fund of India
[B] Consolidated Fund of the State
[C] Contingency Fund of India 
[D] Contingency Fund of State

 

Correct Answer: B [Consolidated Fund of the State]

125.The “Universal Adult Suffrage” is enshrined in which among the following articles of Constitution of India? 

[A] 323
[B] 324
[C] 325
[D] 326

 

Correct Answer: D [326]

126.Who among the following was never a Chief Election Commissioner of India ?

[A] K.V.K.Sundaram
[B] T.Swaminathan
[C] R.K.Trivedi
[D] R.S.Verma

 

Correct Answer: D [R.S.Verma]

127.The registration of Voters is a responsibility of which among the following?

[A] Individual Voters
[B] Government
[C] Election Commission 
[D] Corporations

 

Correct Answer: C [Election Commission ]

128.Which among the following was the purpose of setting up the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee in 1956? 

[A] Suggesting measures for democratic decentralization
[B] Reporting the working of the Village Panchayats
[C] Suggesting measures for better efficiency in the implementation of the Community Development Projects
[D] Investigating the feasibility of setting up new Panchayat Machinery

 

Correct Answer: C [Suggesting measures for better efficiency in the implementation of the Community Development Projects]

129.Which among the following commision is known for recommendation of abolition of the IAS and IPS? 

[A] Dhebar Commission
[B] Kalekar Commission 
[C] Kher Commission
[D] Rajamannar Commission

 

Correct Answer: D [Rajamannar Commission]

130.Which among the following is the most important condition to decide for the validity of nomination of a College student, who seeks to be elected to the Municipal Council of his / her City? 

[A] He / she obtains permission from the Principal of his College
[B] He / she is a member of a Political Party
[C] His / her name figures in the Voter’s List
[D] He / she submits a declaration owing allegiance of the Constitution of India

 

Correct Answer: C [His / her name figures in the Voter’s List]

131.Which among the following is the correct implication of the “Advisory Jurisdiction” of the Supreme Court of India: 

[A] It tenders advice to the President of India on demand
[B] It tenders advice to the Prime Minister of India on legal matters
[C] It tenders advice to the Govt. of India on all Constitutional matters 
[D] All of above

 

Correct Answer: A [It tenders advice to the President of India on demand]

132.Which one of the following is not a constitutional body?

[A] Election Commission 
[B] Union Public Service Commission 
[C] NITI Aayog
[D] Finance Commission

 

Correct Answer: C [NITI Aayog]

133.Diet’ is a joint session of the Parliament of which nation?

[A] China
[B] Japan
[C] Vietnam
[D] Germany

 

Correct Answer: B [Japan]

134.The Third proclamation of emergency under Article 352 was made by President of India on which among the following grounds ?

[A] External Aggression
[B] Internal Disturbance
[C] Financial Instability
[D] Political Instability

 

Correct Answer: B [Internal Disturbance]

135.Which among the following writs is issued against wrongful detention?

[A] Mandamus
[B] Habeas Corpus
[C] Prohibition
[D] Quo Warranto

 

Correct Answer: B [Habeas Corpus]

136.The Upper House of Egypt parliament is known as:

[A] Shura Council
[B] Majilis Al-Sha’ab
[C] Dewan Rakyat
[D] Majlis al-Nuwaab

 

Correct Answer: A [Shura Council]

137.In which of the following conditions, the President of India declares a Financial Emergency?

[A] If he / she feels that there is a threat to Financial Stability
[B] In order to meet the extraordinary expenses of conducting Government Business
[C] If the Council of Minister gets a report from the CAG and recommends so
[D] If majority of the states recommend so

 

Correct Answer: A [If he / she feels that there is a threat to Financial Stability]

138.Approval of which among the following is needed to draw funds from Consolidated Fund of India?

[A] President
[B] Parliament
[C] Council of Ministers
[D] All the above

 

Correct Answer: B [Parliament]

139.Right to Safety, Right to information, Right to Choose, Right to be heard & Right to Seek Redressal are the essential components of which among the following?

[A] Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
[B] The Consumer Protection Act
[C] The Essential Commodities Act
[D] Prevention of Corruption Act

 

Correct Answer: B [The Consumer Protection Act]

140.Who among the following former Prime Ministers of India ,never served as Chief minister of Indian state?

[A] Morar Ji Desai
[B] Chandra Shekhar
[C] V P Singh
[D] P V Narsimharao

 

Correct Answer: B [Chandra Shekhar]

141.In the Budget session, which among the following is known as ‘guillotine’?

[A] General discussion on the Budget
[B] The speaker puts all the outstanding demands to vote
[C] The opposition expresses desire to bring a cut motion
[D] The demand for grants are cut by Re. 1

 

Correct Answer: B [The speaker puts all the outstanding demands to vote]

142.Who among the following appoints a Judge in the High Court of Indian state?

[A] President with advice of Chief Justice of India
[B] President with Advice of Prime Minister
[C] Law Ministry
[D] President with Advice of a collegium of Judges

 

Correct Answer: D [President with Advice of a collegium of Judges]

143.B.G. Verghese Committee 1977 is most commonly related to which among the following ?

[A] Anti defection
[B] Prasar Bharti Act
[C] Panchayati Raj
[D] Centre State Relations

 

Correct Answer: B [Prasar Bharti Act]

144.Which among the following act was known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crime act 1919?

[A] Indian Arms Act
[B] Pitts India Act
[C] Ilbert Bill
[D] Rowlatt Act

 

Correct Answer: D [Rowlatt Act]

Notes:

. Please note that this act triggered the Rowlatt Satyagraha. Gandhi ji called it a Black act and it took away the Habeas Corpus which forms the basis of Civil Liberties in England.

145.Dr. BR Ambedkar was elected to The constituent assembly from which among the following ?

[A] United provinces
[B] West Bengal
[C] The Bombay Presidency
[D] Punjab

 

Correct Answer: B [West Bengal]

146.In which year, Peacock was declared National Bird of India?

[A] 1958
[B] 1960
[C] 1963
[D] 1965

 

Correct Answer: C [1963]

147.Bring out the only incorrect statement:

[A] The constitutional amendment bill can only be ratified by the president but not returned
[B] Under powers given by Article 111, President can withhold his / her assent to a bill
[C] A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief Justice of India
[D] Abolition of Untouchability is included in the Right to Equality

 

Correct Answer: C [A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief Justice of India]

Notes:

Please note that High Court Judge addresses the resignation to President of India

148.which among the following articles of Constitution of India deals with “Prohibition of Traffic in Human beings”, ?

[A] Article 21
[B] Article 22
[C] Article 23
[D] Article 24

 

Correct Answer: C [Article 23]

149.Who among the following can be a chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?

[A] Any serving judge of Supreme Court
[B] Any retired Judge of Supreme Court
[C] Serving Chief justice of India
[D] Retired Chief Justice of India

 

Correct Answer: D [Retired Chief Justice of India]

150.In which year “The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act” was enacted?

[A] 2003
[B] 2005
[C] 2007
[D] 2009

 

Correct Answer: B [2005]

151.Which among the following constitutional amendment bills is known for establishment of administrative tribunals?

[A] 41st amendment act
[B] 42nd amendment act
[C] 61st amendment act
[D] 69th amendment act

 

Correct Answer: B [42nd amendment act]

152.Who among the following was the chairman of the Special Committee to examine the Draft Constitution of India ?

[A] Dr. B R Ambedkar
[B] Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyer
[C] Sardar Patel
[D] Sardar Balvant Singh

 

Correct Answer: B [Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyer]

153.Bring out the ONLY incorrect statement:

[A] In Kesavanand Bharti Case, Supreme Court held that Preamble is part of India’s Constitution
[B] Article 34 covers the imposing of Martial Law
[C] Ideal of Justice in Indian Constitution comes from the Russian (erstwhile USSR) Constitution
[D] January 26, 1950 marks the final session of the Constituent Assembly

 

Correct Answer: D [January 26, 1950 marks the final session of the Constituent Assembly]

Notes:

January 24, 1950 marks the final session of the Constituent Assembly

154.In which year, the protection of Civil Rights Act which provides for a punishment for offences related to caste and religion was passed?

[A] 1950
[B] 1955
[C] 1960
[D] 1965

 

Correct Answer: B [1955]

155.Maximum number of states / union territories in India come under the Jurisdiction of which of the following High Courts?

[A] Kolkata High Court
[B] Guwahati High Court
[C] High Court of Madras
[D] Bombay High Court

 

Correct Answer: B [Guwahati High Court]

156.The Higher court issued a writ to a lower court preventing it from exceeding its jurisdiction. This is referred to as ________?

[A] Certiorari
[B] Prohibition
[C] Habeas Corpus
[D] None of them

 

Correct Answer: B [Prohibition]

157.Economic Planning comes under which of the following lists ?

[A] Union List
[B] Concurrent list
[C] State List
[D] None of them

 

Correct Answer: B [Concurrent list]

158.Which among the following decides that there should be a Legislative Council in the state or not?

[A] President
[B] Governor
[C] Legislative Assembly
[D] Chief Minister

 

Correct Answer: C [Legislative Assembly]

159.On the recommendations of Santhanam Committee, which among the following offices was set up in India?

[A] Central Vigilance Commission
[B] Central Economic Intelligence Bureau
[C] Foreign Investment Promotion Board
[D] Khadi and Village Industries Commission

 

Correct Answer: A [Central Vigilance Commission]

160.Which among the following is an essential feature of a Unitary Government ?

[A] Written Constitution
[B] Independence of Judiciary
[C] Double Citizenship
[D] None of the above

 

Correct Answer: D [None of the above]

161.Which of the following Government gets the stamp duty collected on promissory notes?

[A] State Government 100%
[B] Central Government 100 %
[C] State Government 50% and Central Government 50%
[D] State Government 25% and Central Government 75%

 

Correct Answer: A [State Government 100%]

162.Bring out the only incorrect statement:

[A] National Judicial Academy is located at Bhopal
[B] Justice MM Punchi Commission is related to Centre state relations
[C] India became a party to the UN in 1945
[D] Indian Parliament is based upon the principle of Dyarchy

 

Correct Answer: D [Indian Parliament is based upon the principle of Dyarchy]

Notes:

India Parliament is based upon bicameralism.

163.Under the provisions of which of the following, 5 Zonal Councils were established in India?

[A] Constitution of India , Article 263
[B] Zonal Councils Act
[C] States Reorganization act 1956
[D] None of them

 

Correct Answer: C [States Reorganization act 1956]

164.The setting up of which of the following is NOT mentioned in constitution?

[A] Finance Commission
[B] Lok Sabha Secretariat
[C] Election Commission
[D] National Human Rights Commission

 

Correct Answer: D [National Human Rights Commission]

165.Which among the following was first Municipal Corporation of India (Established in 1687)?

[A] Bombay
[B] Allahabad
[C] Kolkata
[D] Madras

 

Correct Answer: D [Madras]

166.Sylheti language is a dialect of which of the following languages ?

[A] Sindhi
[B] Bengali
[C] Oriya
[D] Punjabi

 

Correct Answer: B [Bengali]

167.which among the following parts of Indian Constitution deal with the local administration?

[A] Part IX
[B] Part IX and part IXA
[C] Part IX, Part IXA and Part XIVA
[D] Part IXA only

 

Correct Answer: B [Part IX and part IXA]

168.Bring out the only incorrect statement:

[A] The constitutional amendment bill can only be ratified by the president but not returned
[B] Under powers given by Article 111, President can withhold his / her assent to a bill
[C] A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief Justice of India
[D] Abolition of Untouchability is included in the Right to Equality

 

Correct Answer: C [A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief Justice of India]

Notes:

Please note that High Court Judge addresses the resignation to President of India

169.Which of the following committees had recommended the Panchayat Raj Finance Corporation ?

[A] Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957)
[B] K. Santhanam Committee (1963)
[C] Ashok Mehta Committee (1978)
[D] G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985)

 

Correct Answer: B [K. Santhanam Committee (1963)]

170.No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office under the State” Which among the following article says this ?

[A] Article 15
[B] Article 16
[C] Article 17
[D] Article 18

 

Correct Answer: B [Article 16]

171.Bring out the only incorrect statement:

[A] National Judicial Academy is located at Bhopal
[B] Justice MM Punchi Commission is related to Centre state relations
[C] India became a party to the UN in 1945
[D] Indian Parliament is based upon the principle of Dyarchy

 

Correct Answer: D [Indian Parliament is based upon the principle of Dyarchy]

Notes:

India Parliament is based upon bicameralism. Bicameralism and Dyarchy are different words

172.The Constitution of India gives a right to audience in all courts of India, to whom among the following?

[A] President of India
[B] Chief Justice of India
[C] Attorney General of India
[D] Solicitor General of India

 

Correct Answer: C [Attorney General of India]

173.The concept of Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is borrowed from which of the following?

[A] USSR
[B] USA
[C] Japan
[D] Switzerland

 

Correct Answer: B [USA]

174.What is the current number of High Courts in India?

[A] 20
[B] 22
[C] 24
[D] 25

 

Correct Answer: C [24]

175.Which of the following is the Official language of Nagaland?

[A] Nagamese
[B] Assamese
[C] English
[D] Chang

 

Correct Answer: C [English]

176.The word “Politburo” is used for the executive committee of communist political parties. This term has originate from which of the following countries?

[A] USSR
[B] Germany
[C] Poland
[D] Austria

 

Correct Answer: B [Germany]

Notes:

It is short for Politisches Büro des Zentralkomitees.

177.Which among the following is NOT a classical language?

[A] Tamil
[B] Telugu
[C] Kannada
[D] Bengali

 

Correct Answer: D [Bengali]

Notes:
Bengali is not a classical language as of now. The classical languages are as follows:
Tamil (since 2004)
Sanskrit (since 2005)
Telugu (since 2008)
Kannada (Since 2008)
Malayalam (since 2013)
Odiya (since 2014)

178.Which among the following was NOT a political party at the time of its foundation?

[A] Sikkim Democratic Front
[B] Mizo National Front
[C] Shiv Sena
[D] Uttarakhand Kranti Dal

 

Correct Answer: C [Shiv Sena]

179.Who among the following is widely remembered for his efforts in achieving the Official Language of India status for Hindi?

[A] Mahavir Tyagi
[B] Purshottam Das Tandon
[C] Jayaprakash Narayan
[D] Bhagwan Das

 

Correct Answer: B [Purshottam Das Tandon]

180.Who among the following introduced the Preventive Detention Bill in 1950 in the Indian parliament?

[A] Baldev Singh
[B] Narahar Vishnu Gadgil
[C] Sardar Patel
[D] Jawahar Lal Nehru

 

Correct Answer: C [Sardar Patel]

181.The famous “Ripon Resolution” of 1882 is most closely related to which among the following?

[A] Public Services in India
[B] Educational Reforms
[C] Local Self Government
[D] Public Health Policy

 

Correct Answer: C [Local Self Government]

182.The Recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee led to which of the following constitutional Amendments?

[A] 72nd Amendment
[B] 73rd Amendment
[C] 74th Amendment
[D] 75th Amendment

 

Correct Answer: B [73rd Amendment]

183.Which among the following was the first French enclave of Pondicherry to merge with the Dominion of India?

[A] Mahe
[B] Karaikal
[C] Chandranagore
[D] Pondicherry

 

Correct Answer: D [Pondicherry]

184.Who among the following was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

[A] Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar
[B] M.A. Ayyangar
[C] Sardar Hukam Singh
[D] N. Sanjiva Reddy

 

Correct Answer: A [Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar]

Notes:
First Lok Sabha had two speakers. Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar remained speaker between 8 May 1952 and 8 Mar 1956 and M. A. Ayyangar between 27 Feb 1956 and 10 May 1957

185.Which among the following article was inserted in the Indian Constitution by 42nd amendment 1976, in purview of India being a signatory of Stockholm Conference of 1972?

[A] Article 45
[B] Article 47
[C] Article 47 A
[D] Article 48 A

 

Correct Answer: D [Article 48 A]

186.The Supreme Court’s Samata judgment (1997) nullified all mining leases granted by the State government of Andhra Pradesh in the Scheduled areas and asked it to stop all mining operations, thus protecting the land of tribal people. Under which is the following schedules of Indian Constitution, Supreme Court protected the land of the tribal people through this judgment?

[A] Schedule 4
[B] Schedule 5
[C] Schedule 6
[D] Schedule 9

 

Correct Answer: B [Schedule 5]

187.Which among the following is constituted by the President of India under Article 280 (1) of the Constitution?

[A] Planning Commission
[B] Election Commission
[C] Finance Commission
[D] Farmer’s Commission

 

Correct Answer: C [Finance Commission]

188.Who among the following has been given the power by the Constitution of India to “Impose Reasonable Restrictions” on the fundamental rights? 

[A] President
[B] Parliament
[C] Supreme Court
[D] Both Parliament & Supreme Court

 

Correct Answer: B [Parliament]

189.Jawahar Lal Nehru headed the Interim Cabinet as _________?

[A] President
[B] Vice President
[C] Prime Minister
[D] Chairman

 

Correct Answer: B [Vice President]

190.In which year Indian Citizenship Act was passed?

[A] 1940
[B] 1947
[C] 1950
[D] 1955

 

Correct Answer: D [1955]

191.Which of the following fundamental right is also known to have incorporated a “Necessary Evil” of the Constitution of India?

[A] Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
[B] Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
[C] Protection of life and personal liberty.
[D] Protection against arrest and detention in certain case

 

Correct Answer: D [Protection against arrest and detention in certain case]

192.Who among the following founded the Indian Statistical Institute?

[A] Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
[B] Calyampudi Radhakrishna Rao
[C] S. N. Roy
[D] S. S. Shrikhande

 

Correct Answer: A [Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis]

193.Who among the following was President of United States when Cripps Mission visited India?

[A] Herbert Hoover
[B] Harry S. Truman
[C] Franklin D. Roosevelt
[D] Calvin Coolidge

 

Correct Answer: C [Franklin D. Roosevelt]

194.The Cripps Mission was welcomed and accepted by which among the following ?

[A] Congress
[B] Muslim League
[C] Hindu Mahasabha
[D] None of them

 

Correct Answer: D [None of them]

195.Who among the following headed the Union powers Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

[A] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[B] H C Mookherjee
[C] Jawahar Lal Nehru
[D] Dr. B R Ambedkar

 

Correct Answer: C [Jawahar Lal Nehru]

196.Which among the following article throws all public places to all citizens?

[A] Article 15 (2)
[B] Article 16 (2)
[C] Article 17
[D] Article 18

 

Correct Answer: A [Article 15 (2)]

197.“Socialist” was implicit in the constitution, but made explicit by _______?

[A] 38th Amendment Act
[B] 42nd Amendment Act
[C] 44th Amendment Act
[D] 50th Amendment Act

 

Correct Answer: B [42nd Amendment Act]

198.Who among the following quoted “Preamble” as Political Horoscope?

[A] Thakurdas Bhargava
[B] N A Palkhi Wala
[C] K M Munshi
[D] Jawahar Lal Nehru

 

Correct Answer: C [K M Munshi]

199.How many times the word “Secular” appears in our constitution?

[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4

Hide Answe

Correct Answer: B [2]

Notes:

Preamble and article 25 a

200.Which among the following was the outcome of kesavanand Bharti Case v/s State of Kerala Case 1973?

[A] Preamble is Part of the constitution and subject to amending power of the parliament
[B] Preamble is Part of the constitution but not subject to amending power of the parliament
[C] Preamble is not a part of the constitution and is subject to amending power of the parliament
[D] Preamble is not a Part of the constitution and not subject to amending power of the parliament

 

Correct Answer: A [Preamble is Part of the constitution and subject to amending power of the parliament]

 

 

 ias coaching in chandigarh- Best  ias coaching in chandigarh- has coaching in chandigarh- hcs coaching in chandigarh- pcs coaching in chandigarh- ias coaching chandigarh-test series for ias-ias test series-Prelims Test series for ias-Mains test series for ias